17. Individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus have a greater degree of 29. Many people with diabetes mellitus type 2, who were treated with drugs that …
Patho Exam 2 Review
True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false
____ 1 Anaplasia is recognized by loss or organization and a marked
increase in nuclear size
____ 2 A hallmark of cancer cells is their immortality
____ 3 For the function of tumor suppressor genes to be lost, only one
chromosome allele of the gene must be inactivated
____ 4 Most cancers must acquire mutation in six distinct areas:
growth signals, antigrowth signals, evading apoptosis, replicating ability,
angiogenesis, and invasion and metastasis
____ 5 There is no current evidence that associates obesity with
cancer formation
____ 6 The term neoplasm can refer to a benign tumor
____ 7 The brain does not require insulin for glucose uptake
____ 8 Somatostatin produced by the hypothalamus inhibits the release
of growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone
____ 9 Adrenocorticotropic hormone ACTH directly affects melanocyte
stimulation
____ 10 Aldosterone secretion is stimulated by angiotensin I
____ 11 Antidiuretic hormone has no direct effect on electrolyte
levels
____ 12 A person with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone
SIADH usually craves cold drinks
____ 13 Pituitary adenomas are malignant tumors
____ 14 Abnormal immunologic mechanisms producing autoantibodies are
responsible for both Graves disease and hypothyroidism
____ 15 Thyroid carcinoma, although rare, is the most common endocrine
malignancy
____ 16 The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is damage to the
glands during surgery
____ 17 Individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus have a greater degree
of pancreatic changes than individuals with type 1 diabetes
____ 18 Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone SIADH is
characterized by increased levels of antidiuretic hormone ADH
____ 19 Glucose levels are considerably lower in hyperosmolar
hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome HHNKS than in diabetic ketoacidosis
DKA
____ 20 When the myocardium hypertrophies, the capillaries of the heart
become more extensive and numerous
____ 21 Veins are less compliant than arteries
____ 22 Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow despite
normal shifts in perfusion pressure
____ 23 Metabolic or hormonal agents produce changes in the heart and
circulatory system faster than autonomic neural
transmission
____ 24 While both produce vasoconstriction, the effects of
norepinephrine are quantitatively more vasoconstrictive than the effects of
epinephrine
____ 25 Decreasing low-density lipoproteins LDL can cause regression
of atherosclerotic lesions and improve endothelial function
____ 26 Once fatty streaks accumulate, they form foam cells that cause
immunologic changes that damage the endothelium
____ 27 Even though air is lighter than blood, it can form an embolism
and cause the occlusion of a blood vessel
____ 28 Raynaud disease is characterized by vasospasms of large
peripheral arteries
____ 29 Many people with diabetes mellitus type 2, who were treated
with drugs that increased insulin sensitivity, experienced a decline in
their blood pressure without taking antihypertensive drugs
____ 30 Chronic venous insufficiency can progress to varicose veins and
valvular incompetence
____ 31 Although cholesterol can be easily obtained via dietary intake,
most body cells are also capable of synthesizing cholesterol
____ 32 In high output failure, the heart increases its output, but the
bodys metabolic needs are still not met
____ 33 When
fluid collects gradually in a pericardial effusion, the
pericardium stretches to accommodate large quantities of fluid without
compressing the heart
____ 34 Acute rheumatic fever can develop only as a sequel to
pharyngeal infection by group A -streptococcus
____ 35 An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume in
diastolic heart failure may lead to pulmonary edema
____ 36 Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely
asymptomatic
____ 37 Chorea or St Vitus dance is the most definitive sign of
rheumatic fever
____ 38 Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides are increased in
congestive heart failure and may have some protective effect in decreasing
preload
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or
answers the question
____ 39 Which are cancers arising from connective tissue tissues?
|a|Osteogenic sarcoma |
|b|Basal cell carcinoma |
|c|Multiple myeloma |
|d|Adenocarcinoma |
____ 40 Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation
originating
from which tissue origin?
|a|Blood vessels |
|b|Epithelium cells |
|c|Connective tissue |
|d|Glandular tissue |
____ 41 What are characteristics of cancer in situ?
|a|Cells have broken through the local basement membrane |
|b|Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue |
|c|Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells |
|d|Cellular and tissues changes indicate dysplasia |
____ 42 Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new
muscle and appear highly disorganized This is an example of:
|a|dysplasia |
|b|hyperplasia |
|c|myoplasia |
|d|anaplasia |
____ 43 What are tumor cell markers?
|a|Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies produced by cancer|
| |cells
|
|b|Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and |
| |marked |
|c|Cytokines produced against cancer cells |
|d|Identification marks used in administering radiation therapy |
____ 44 How are tumor cell markers used?
|a|To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer |
|b|To treat certain types of cancer |
|c|To predict where cancers will develop |
|d|To screen individuals at high risk for cancer |
____ 45 Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in
development of colon cancer These findings support the notion that:
|a|cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign |
| |form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy |
|b|an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for|
| |the development of cancer |
|c|tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the |
| |gastrointestinal tract |
|d|apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive |
|
|growth |
____ 46 What is autocrine stimulation?
|a|The ability of cancer cells to stimulate angiogenesis to |
| |create their own blood supply |
|b|The ability of cancer cells to stimulate secretions that turn |
| |off normal growth inhibitors |
|c|The ability of cancer cells to secrete growth factors that |
| |stimulate their own growth |
|d|The ability of cancer cells to divert nutrients away from |
| |normal tissue for their own use |
____ 47 Many cancers create a mutation of ras What is ras?
|a|A tumor suppressor gene |
|b|A growth promoting gene |
|c|An intracellular signaling protein that regulates cell growth |
|d|A cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus |
| |about cell growth |
____ 48 What are oncogenes?
|a|Genes that have undergone mutation that direct the synthesis |
| |of protein to accelerate the rate of tissue
proliferation |
|b|Genes that direct synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and|
| |provide necessary replacement of tissue |
|c|Genes that encode proteins that negatively regulate the |
| |synthesis of proteins to show or halt replacement of tissue |
|d|Genes that have undergone mutation to direct malignant tissue |
| |toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis |
____ 49 Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of
chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14 This is an example of which
mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
|a|Point mutation |
|b|Chromosome translocation |
|c|Gene amplification |
|d|Chromosome fusion |
____ 50 In chronic myeloid leukemia CML a piece of chromosome 9 fuses
to a piece of chromosome 22 This is an example of which mutation of normal
genes to oncogenes?
|a|Point mutation |
|b|Chromosome fusion |
|c|Gene
amplification |
|d|Chromosome translocation |
____ 51 What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in
retinoblastoma?
|a|Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes |
|b|The tumor suppressor gene is turned off |
|c|Genetic amplification causes the growth |
|d|Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused |
____ 52 Why are two hits required to inactivate tumor suppressor
genes?
|a|Because each allele must be altered and each person has two |
| |copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent |
|b|Because the first hit stops tissue growth and the second |
| |hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth |
|c|Because they are larger than proto-oncogenes requiring two |
| |hits to effect carcinogenesis |
|d|Because the first hit is insufficient to cause sufficient |
| |damage to cause a mutation |
____ 53 By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene
to an oncogene?
|a|By designating a
chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome|
| |fused to a piece of another chromosome |
|b|By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome repeatedly making|
| |numerous copies |
|c|By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs |
|d|By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing |
| |tumor suppressor genes |
____ 54 What are characteristics of benign tumors?
|a|They invade local tissues |
|b|They spread through lymph |
|c|They cause systemic symptoms |
|d|They have a low mitotic index |
____ 55 Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for
benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?
|a|Liposarcoma, lipoma |
|b|Lipoma, liposarcoma |
|c|Adisarcoma, adipoma |
|d|Adipoma, adisarcoma |
____ 56 Most human
cancers appear to arise via:
|a|autosomal recessive gene inheritance |
|b|spontaneous gene mutations |
|c|X-linked recessive gene inheritance |
|d|autosomal dominant gene inheritance |
____ 57 Smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following
except:
|a|lung |
|b|skin |
|c|bladder |
|d|kidney |
|e|pancreas |
____ 58 The major virus involved in cervical cancer is:
|a|herpes simplex virus type 6 |
|b|herpes simplex virus type 2 |
|c|human papillomavirus |
|d|human immunodeficiency virus |
____ 59 The Papanicolaou Pap test is used to screen for which cancer?
|a|Ovarian |
|b|Uterine
|
|c|Cervical |
|d|Vaginal |
____ 60 Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?
|a|Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses |
|b|Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses |
|c|Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses |
|d|Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses |
____ 61 Which characteristic among women correlates with a high
morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast,
uterus, and kidney?
|a|Women over 45 years |
|b|Women who never had children |
|c|Women who had a high body mass index |
|d|Woman who smoked for more than 10 years |
____ 62 Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation?
|a|Skin, lung, and pancreatic |
|b|Colon, liver, and lung |
|c|Bone, blood cells, and pancreatic
|
|d|Bladder, skin, and kidney |
____ 63 How does chronic inflammation cause cancer?
|a|By vasodilation and increased permeability that alter cellular|
| |response to DNA damage |
|b|By liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which |
| |initiates mutations |
|c|By releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that |
| |promote mutations |
|d|By increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are |
| |associated with some cancers |
____ 64 Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost
invariably what kind of gene?
|a|Proto-oncogenes |
|b|Oncogenes |
|c|Tumor suppressor genes |
|d|Growth promoting genes |
____ 65 Regulation of the release of epinephrine from the adrenal
medulla is an example of _____ regulation
|a|negative-feedback
|
|b|positive-feedback |
|c|neural |
|d|physiologic |
____ 66 Hormones are effective communicators because they:
|a|are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue |
| |activities |
|b|increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels|
|c|are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell |
|d|decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone |
| |levels |
____ 67 Which of the following is a protein hormone that is water
soluble?
|a|Thyroxine T4 |
|b|Aldosterone |
|c|Follicle-stimulating hormone FSH |
|d|Insulin |
____ 68 How are most protein hormones transported in the bloodstream?
|a|Bound to a lipid-soluble carrier |
|b|Free in an unbound,
water-soluble form |
|c|Bound to a water-soluble binding protein |
|d|Free because of their lipid-soluble chemistry |
____ 69 Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to
a ß-adrenergic receptor?
|a|Calcium |
|b|Inositol triphosphate IP3 |
|c|Diacylglycerol DAG |
|d|Cyclic adenosine monophosphate cAMP |
____ 70 Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a
second messenger?
|a|Angiotensin II |
|b|Thyroxine |
|c|Estrogen |
|d|Testosterone |
|e|Aldosterone |
____ 71 Calcium is rigidly controlled within cells It is highly
regulated because it:
|a|is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop |
|b|is continuously synthesized |
|c|acts
as a second messenger |
|d|carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream |
____ 72 Under what circumstances does antidiuretic hormone act to cause
vasoconstriction?
|a|When urine output is less than 20 ml per hour |
|b|When serum osmolality is increased |
|c|When osmotic and oncotic pressures are increased |
|d|When vasopressin is given pharmacologically |
____ 73 What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?
|a|Hypothalamus |
|b|Anterior pituitary |
|c|Mammary glands |
|d|Posterior pituitary |
____ 74 Where is oxytocin synthesized?
|a|Hypothalamus |
|b|Paraventricular nuclei |
|c|Anterior pituitary |
|d|Posterior pituitary |
____ 75 Norepinephrine stimulates the release of which
hormone?
|a|Thyroxine |
|b|Adrenocorticotropic hormone |
|c|Growth hormone |
|d|Insulin |
____ 76 What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
|a|It increases serum calcium |
|b|It decreases serum calcium |
|c|It decreases serum magnesium |
|d|It increases serum magnesium |
____ 77 Which electrolyte does insulin transport in the cell?
|a|Potassium |
|b|Calcium |
|c|Sodium |
|d|Magnesium |
____ 78 Which lab value would be expected for the patient with
hypothyroidism?
|a|Increased triiodothyronine T3 |
|b|Increased thyroxine T4 |
|c|Increased thyroid stimulating
hormone TSH |
|d|Increased calcitonin |
____ 79 Target cells for parathyroid hormone PTH are located in the:
|a|tubules of nephrons |
|b|thyroid gland |
|c|glomeruli of nephrons |
|d|smooth and skeletal muscles |
____ 80 A surgical patient just arrived on the unit from the post-
anesthesia care unit This patients respirations are 4 per minute and
shallow As the nurse calls for assistance, the patient suddenly feels
jittery and breathing quickens Which of the following feedback loops is
operating for the nurse in this situation?
|a|The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing |
| |factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete |
| |thyroid-stimulating hormone TSH and stimulates the release |
| |of thyroxine T4 and triiodothyronine T3 |
|b|The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of |
| |insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels |
|c|The central nervous system directly
stimulates the adrenal |
| |medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates |
| |hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior |
| |pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating |
| |hormone ACTH, stimulating the release of cortisol |
|d|The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to |
| |synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are |
| |secreted by the posterior pituitary, activating uterine |
| |contraction and renal absorption of water |
____ 81 What are actions of glucocorticoids?
|a|Protein catabolism and liver gluconeogenesis |
|b|Fat storage and glucose use |
|c|Decreased blood glucose and fat mobilization |
|d|Fat, protein, and carbohydrate anabolism |
____ 82 What are the effects of high levels of aldosterone?
|a|Hypokalemia and alkalosis |
|b|Hyperkalemia and alkalosis |
|c|Hyperkalemia and acidosis |
|d|Hypokalemia and acidosis
|
____ 83 What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte
imbalances?
|a|It directly increases magnesium reabsorption |
|b|It directly increases calcium reabsorption |
|c|It directly increases sodium reabsorption |
|d|It directly increases water reabsorption |
____ 84 Which of the following is an expected change in an older
patient?
|a|Thyroid stimulating hormone TSH secretion below normal |
|b|Triiodothyronine T3 level below normal |
|c|Cortisol level above normal |
|d|Adrenocorticotropin hormone ACTH level above normal |
____ 85 Cell surface receptors include all of the following except:
|a|G-protein-linked |
|b|ion channel |
|c|second messenger |
|d|tyrosine-kinase linked |
____ 86 What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone SIADH?
|a|Solute retention and water retention
|
|b|Solute retention and water loss |
|c|Solute dilution and water retention |
|d|Solute dilution and water loss |
____ 87 The nurse is evaluating a patient with oat cell adenocarcinoma
of the lung for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone SIADH
Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if
the patient had SIADH?
|a|Hypernatremia and urine hypo-osmolality |
|b|Serum K 5 and urine hyperosmolality |
|c|Serum Na 120 and serum hypo-osmolality |
|d|Hypokalemia and serum hyperosmolality |
____ 88 A patient with a closed head injury secondary to a motorcycle
accident has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day and electrolytes are within
normal limits The nurse draws a serum ADH level and conducts a water
deprivation test With no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in the
patients polyuria The serum ADH level is low These are an indication of:
|a|neurogenic diabetes insipidus |
|b|syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone SIADH
|
|c|psychogenic polydipsia |
|d|osmotically induced diuresis |
____ 89 Which is a cause of diabetes insipidus DI?
|a|Organic lesion of the anterior pituitary |
|b|Organic lesion of the thalamus |
|c|Organic lesion of the posterior pituitary |
|d|Organic lesion of the renal tubules |
____ 90 If the target cells for ADH do not have receptors, the result
is _____ diabetes insipidus DI
|a|neurogenic |
|b|nephrogenic |
|c|psychogenic |
|d|ischemic |
____ 91 Which laboratory value is consistent with diabetes insipidus
DI?
|a|Urine specific gravity is low |
|b|Serum sodium is low |
|c|Urine protein is low |
|d|Serum total protein is low |
____ 92 The type of
diabetes insipidus that is most likely to be
treatable with exogenous ADH is:
|a|neurogenic |
|b|psychogenic |
|c|nephrogenic |
|d|ischemic |
____ 93 Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by:
|a|a pituitary adenoma |
|b|hypothalamic hyposecretion |
|c|autoimmune disorder of the pituitary |
|d|a neurohypophysial tumor |
____ 94 What is the term used to describe a patient who experiences
cortisol deficiency from lack of adrenocorticotropic hormone ACTH,
thyroid deficiency from lack of thyroid stimulating hormone TSH, and
gonadal failure with loss of secondary sex characteristics from the absence
of follicle stimulating hormone FSH and luteinizing hormone LH?
|a|Panhypopituitarism |
|b|Adrenocorticotropic hormone ACTH deficiency |
|c|Hypopituitarism
|
|d|Anterior pituitary failure |
____ 95 How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal
hypofunction?
|a|The tumor metastasizes to the thyroid and adrenal glands |
| |through the lymphatic system causing reduce secretion of |
| |necessary hormones |
|b|The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells, which |
| |results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones|
|c|The tumor invades the hypothalamus adjacent to it and causes a|
| |reduction in the amount of hormones produced |
|d|The tumor releases tumor markers that occupy the hormone |
| |receptor sites of other endocrine organs |
____ 96 Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth
hormone in adults?
|a|Cushing syndrome |
|b|Acromegaly |
|c|Gigantism |
|d|Myxedema |
____ 97 What tumor causes amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism,
and
osteopenia?
|a|Posterior pituitary adenoma |
|b|Thymoma |
|c|Prolactinoma |
|d|Growth hormone adenoma |
____ 98 How does Graves disease develop?
|a|A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes |
| |overproduction of thyroid hormones |
|b|A chronic autoimmune process in which thyroid tissue is |
| |replaced by lymphocytes and fibrous tissue |
|c|A development of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that |
| |causes overproduction of thyroid hormones |
|d|An ingestion of goitrogens or foods that inhibits synthesis of|
| |the thyroid hormones, causing a goiter |
____ 99 What are signs of thyroid crisis from Graves disease?
|a|Weight gain to 155 lb with height of 58 |
|b|Heart rate 90 beats/min and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min |
|c|Hot and moist skin with protrusion of eyeballs |
|d|Constipation and amenorrhea
|
____ 100 What pathologic changes occur in Graves disease?
|a|High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins|
|b|Stimulation by thyrotropin-releasing hormone TRH |
|c|Stimulation by thyroid-stimulating hormone TSH |
|d|Stimulation of thyroid-binding globulin |
____ 101 The level of TSH in Graves disease is usually:
|a|high |
|b|low |
|c|normal |
____ 102 Upon palpation of the neck of a patient with Graves disease,
what would the nurse expect to find?
|a|Normal-sized thyroid |
|b|Small discrete thyroid nodule |
|c|Multiple discrete thyroid nodules |
|d|Diffuse thyroid enlargement |
____ 103 What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
|a|Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss |
|b|Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin |
|c|Restlessness, increased appetite,
and metrorrhagia |
|d|Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy |
____ 104 Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with:
|a|measurement of serum thyroid levels |
|b|radioisotope scanning |
|c|ultrasonography |
|d|fine-needle aspiration biopsy |
____ 105 Renal failure is the most common cause of _____
hyperparathyroidism
|a|primary |
|b|secondary |
|c|exogenous |
|d|inflammatory |
____ 106 What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
|a|Pituitary hyposecretion |
|b|Parathyroid adenoma |
|c|Parathyroid gland damage |
|d|Autoimmune parathyroid disease |
____ 107 An adult female had a thyroidectomy this morning She develops
muscle spasms,
increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm What is
the most common cause of these findings?
|a|Calcium deficit due to reduced parathormone |
|b|Overuse of radioactive iodine given pre-operatively |
|c|A history of insufficient dietary intake of iodine |
|d|An increase in serum phosphorous caused by reduced calcitonin |
____ 108 What is the most probable cause of low serum calcium following
thyroidectomy?
|a|Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves disease |
|b|Myxedema secondary to surgery |
|c|Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury |
|d|Hypothyroidism caused by lack of thyroid replacement |
____ 109 A male patient with diabetic ketoacidosis DKA has the
following laboratory values: arterial pH 720; serum glucose 500 mg/dl;
urine glucose and ketones positive; serum K 2 mEq/L; serum Na 130 mEq/L
He reports that he has been sick with the flu for 1 week What
relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
|a|Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the |
| |intravascular to the intracellular space
|
|b|Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, |
| |metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis |
|c|Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, |
| |electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis |
|d|Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue |
| |wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss |
____ 110 What is a description of diabetes mellitus type 2?
|a|There is a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues|
|b|The patient uses lispro instead of regular insulin |
|c|There is an increased glucagon secretion from -cells of |
| |the pancreas |
|d|There are insulin autoantibodies that destroy ß-cells in the |
| |pancreas |
____ 111 A patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 experiences hunger,
lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion What is the
most probable cause of these symptoms?
|a|Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration |
|b|Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bed time |
|c|Hypoglycemia
caused by increased exercise |
|d|Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity |
____ 112 Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of
the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus?
|a|Ketones in the urine |
|b|Palpitations, anxiety, and confusion |
|c|Hyperlipidemia |
|d|Kussmaul respirations |
____ 113 Why does hyperkalemia develop in diabetic ketoacidosis?
|a|Because sodium is low, which stimulates aldosterone to retain |
| |sodium and potassium |
|b|Because hydrogen shifts into the cell in exchange for |
| |potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis |
|c|Because phosphorus shifts into the cell in exchange for |
| |potassium due to the lack of insulin |
|d|Because the blood is concentrated due to the loss of water |
| |from polyuria |
____ 114 What is a difference in clinical manifestations between
diabetic
ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome?
|a|Fluid loss |
|b|Glycosuria |
|c|Increased serum glucose |
|d|Kussmaul respirations |
____ 115 Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia is seen in:
|a|the Somogyi effect |
|b|the dawn phenomenon |
|c|diabetic ketoacidosis DKA |
|d|hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome HHNKS |
____ 116 What is the first lab test that indicates a patient with type 1
diabetes is developing nephropathy?
|a|Dipstick test for urine ketones |
|b|Increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen BUN |
|c|Protein in the urinalysis |
|d|Cloudy urine on the urinalysis |
____ 117 Why do patients with diabetes mellitus develop hyperlipidemia?
|a|Because they have increases in low density lipoproteins LDL|
| |and
triglycerides TG |
|b|Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins vLDL |
| |and increased triglycerides TG |
|c|Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins vLDL |
| |and increased high density lipoproteins HDL |
|d|Because they have increased high density lipoproteins HDL |
| |and decreased triglycerides vTG |
____ 118 What causes the microvascular complications of clients with
diabetes mellitus?
|a|The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood |
| |flow |
|b|There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of |
| |the elevated glucose attracting water |
|c|The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is |
| |endothelial cell hyperplasia |
|d|Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial |
| |smooth muscle of arteries |
____ 119 What causes the macrovascular complications of clients with
diabetes mellitus?
|a|The capillaries contain
plaques of lipids that obstruct blood |
| |flow |
|b|There is increased pressure within capillaries caused by the |
| |elevated glucose attracting water |
|c|The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is |
| |endothelial cell hyperplasia |
|d|Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial |
| |smooth muscle of arteries |
____ 120 Which chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is caused by
microvascular complications?
|a|Nephropathy |
|b|Coronary artery disease |
|c|Neuropathy |
|d|Peripheral vascular disease |
____ 121 Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes?
|a|Because there are plaques of lipids within the retinal vessels|
|b|Because of an increased pressure within the retinal vessels |
| |from the increased osmotic pressure |
|c|Because ketones cause microaneurysms
within the retinal |
| |vessels |
|d|Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and |
| |microaneurysm formation |
____ 122 A patient has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and
truncal obesity These clinical manifestations are indicative of which
endocrine disorder?
|a|Hyperthyroidism |
|b|Hypoaldosteronism |
|c|Diabetes insipidus DI |
|d|Cushing disease |
____ 123 Which statement about the pericardium is false?
|a|It is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart |
|b|It is composed of connective tissue and a layer of squamous |
| |cells |
|c|It protects the heart against infection and inflammation from |
| |the lungs and pleural space |
|d|It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex |
| |changes in blood pressure and heart rate |
____ 124
During the cardiac cycle, what makes the mitral and tricuspid
valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood?
|a|The chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close|
|b|The increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the values to |
| |close |
|c|The trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves |
| |closed |
|d|The reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure |
| |that pulls the valves closed |
____ 125 What is the significance of the atrial kick?
|a|It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to |
| |open the tricuspid valve |
|b|It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to |
| |increase the blood volume from the venae cavae |
|c|It is the contraction of the left atria that increases the |
| |blood volume into the ventricle |
|d|It is the contraction of the left atria that is necessary to |
| |open the mitral valve |
____ 126
Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a
myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the
heart?
|a|To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the |
| |interventricular septum |
|b|To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle |
|c|To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right|
| |ventricle to the apex |
|d|To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches |
| |of both ventricles |
____ 127 Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial
infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
|a|To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the |
| |interventricular septum |
|b|To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches |
| |of both ventricles |
|c|To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right|
| |ventricle to the apex |
|d|To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the
left ventricle |
____ 128 Where are the coronary ostia located?
|a|Left ventricle |
|b|Medial to the aortic valve |
|c|Coronary sinus |
|d|Aorta |
____ 129 The coronary sinus empties into the:
|a|right atrium |
|b|left atrium |
|c|superior vena cava |
|d|aorta |
____ 130 Which statement about development of collateral arteries in the
heart is false?
|a|The incidence of aneurysm formation after a myocardial |
| |infarction is reduced in individuals who develop significant |
| |collateral circulation |
|b|The incidence of myocardial regeneration after a myocardial |
| |infarction increases in individuals who develop significant |
| |collateral circulation |
|c|The risk of dysrhythmias after a myocardial
infarction is |
| |reduced in individuals with well-developed collateral |
| |circulation |
|d|Collateral circulation may extend the window of time to |
| |benefit reperfusion therapy after a myocardial infarction, |
| |resulting in greater improvement in cardiac function |
____ 131 What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle
cells?
|a|1:1 1 capillary per 1 muscle cell |
|b|1:2 1 capillary per 2 muscle cells |
|c|1:4 1 capillary per 4 muscle cells |
|d|1:10 1 capillary per 10 muscle cells |
____ 132 What is the function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node
and Purkinje fibers?
|a|They are receptors for pain stimuli, such as the pain that |
| |occurs during infarction |
|b|They prolong the refractory period before the next |
| |contraction |
|c|They are assumed to be the site of impulse formation |
|d|They initiate repolarization of the myocardium |
____
133 Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of
a:
|a|decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to |
| |potassium |
|b|rapid movement of sodium into the cell |
|c|rapid movement of calcium into the cell |
|d|slow movement of sodium out of the cell |
|e|slow movement of calcium out of the cell |
____ 134 What occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell
depolarization and repolarization?
|a|Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells |
|b|Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells |
|c|Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters cells |
|d|Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells |
____ 135 Phase 0 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and
repolarization correlates with which part of the electrocardiogram EKG?
|a|QRS complex |
|b|P-R interval |
|c|Q-T interval |
|d|U wave
|
____ 136 Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and
repolarization correlates with diastole?
|a|Phase 0 |
|b|Phase 1 |
|c|Phase 2 |
|d|Phase 3 |
|e|Phase 4 |
____ 137 _____ nerves can shorten the conduction time of action
potential through the atrioventricular AV node
|a|Parasympathetic |
|b|Sympathetic |
|c|Vagal |
|d|Glossopharyngeal |
____ 138 If the sinoatrial SA node fails, at what rate can the
atrioventricular AV node polarize?
|a|60 to 70 per minute |
|b|40 to 60 per minute |
|c|30 to 40 per minute |
|d|10 to 20
per minute |
____ 139 What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on ?2-receptors of
the heart?
|a|None, ?1-receptors are the only ?-receptors in the heart |
|b|Dilate coronary arterioles |
|c|Increase the strength of myocardial contraction |
|d|Increase the heart rate |
____ 140 Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the
heart?
|a|Semilunar and atrioventricular valves |
|b|Endocardium and sinoatrial node |
|c|Myocardium and coronary vessels |
|d|Epicardium and atrioventricular node |
____ 141 Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-
diastolic volume preload leads to an:
|a|increased force of contraction |
|b|decrease in refractory time |
|c|increase in afterload |
|d|increase in repolarization |
____ 142 Continuous increases in left ventricular filing
pressures
results in which disorder?
|a|Mitral regurgitation |
|b|Mitral stenosis |
|c|Pulmonary edema |
|d|Jugular vein distention |
____ 143 The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory
neurons in the:
|a|atria |
|b|aorta |
|c|atrioventricular node |
|d|ventricles |
____ 144 What is the correct sequence of events that occur after the
baroreceptor reflex is stimulated?
|a|From the carotid artery to the vagus nerve to the medulla to |
| |increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic |
| |activity |
|b|From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve |
| |through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic|
| |activity and decrease parasympathetic activity |
|c|From the carotid artery
to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve |
| |through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase |
| |parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity |
|d|From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve |
| |through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase |
| |parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity |
____ 145 Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral
resistance is controlled by:
|a|parasympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins |
|b|sympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins |
|c|autonomic control of the heart only |
|d|somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins |
____ 146 Myogenic regulation of blood vessel diameter and subsequent
blood flow through a vessel is an example of _____ of blood vessels
|a|autonomic regulation |
|b|somatic regulation |
|c|autoregulation |
|d|metabolic regulation |
____ 147 In assessing for allergies before
coronary angiography, the
nurse will be particularly concerned if the patient he has an allergy to:
|a|technetium |
|b|iodine |
|c|penicillin |
|d|warfarin sodium Coumadin |
____ 148 What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that
occurs with aging?
|a|Arterial stiffening |
|b|Decreased left ventricular wall tension |
|c|Decreased aortic wall thickness |
|d|Arteriosclerosis |
____ 149 Which statement is false about the way in which substances pass
from capillaries and the interstitial fluid?
|a|Substances pass through junctions between endothelial cells |
|b|Substances pass through pores or oval windows |
|c|Substances pass through vesicles by active transport across |
| |the endothelial cell membrane |
|d|Substances pass through by osmosis across the endothelial cell|
| |membrane
|
____ 150 Which natriuretic peptide inhibits antidiuretic hormone by
increasing urine sodium loss?
|a|Urodilatin |
|b|Brain natriuretic peptide BNP |
|c|Atrial natriuretic peptide ANP |
|d|C-type natriuretic peptide CNP |
____ 151 Which natriuretic peptide complements nitric oxide to mediate
vasodilation?
|a|Urodilatin |
|b|Brain natriuretic peptide BNP |
|c|Atrial natriuretic peptide ANP |
|d|C-type natriuretic peptide CNP |
____ 152 Which natriuretic peptide is proposed to be a biochemical
marker to screen for left ventricular dysfunction?
|a|Urodilatin |
|b|Brain natriuretic peptide BNP |
|c|Atrial natriuretic peptide ANP |
|d|C-type natriuretic peptide CNP |
____ 153 What is the primary mechanism of
atherogenesis?
|a|The release of the inflammatory cytokines tumor necrosis |
| |factor alpha TNF-, interferon gamma IFN-, and |
| |interleukin 1 Il-1 |
|b|The release of the growth factor granulocyte-macrophage |
| |colony-stimulating factor GM-CSF |
|c|The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density |
| |lipoproteins LDL |
|d|The release of the inflammatory cytokines interferon beta |
| |IFN-ß, interleukin 6 Il-6, and granulocyte |
| |colony-stimulating factor G-CSF |
____ 154 What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins LDL
in atherosclerosis?
|a|It causes smooth muscle proliferation |
|b|It causes regression of atherosclerotic plaques |
|c|It increases levels of inflammatory cytokines |
|d|It directs macrophages to the site within the endothelium |
____ 155 Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial
cells are injured?
|a|Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor GM-CSF |
|b|Beta-interferon
ß-IFN, interleukin 6 Il-6, and granulocyte|
| |colony-stimulating factor G-CSF |
|c|Tumor necrosis factor alpha TNF-, gamma interferon |
| |-IFN, and interleukin 1 Il-1 |
|d|Interferon alpha IFN-, interleukin 12 Il-12, and |
| |macrophage colony-stimulating factor M-CSF |
____ 156 What are the vasoconstricting factors regulated by endothelium?
|a|Thromboxane A and endothelin |
|b|Norepinephrine and acetylcholine |
|c|Bradykinin and leukotriene |
|d|Serotonin and prostacyclin |
____ 157 What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that
contributes to atherosclerosis?
|a|They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density |
| |lipoproteins LDL |
|b|They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating |
| |cytokines |
|c|They produce an increased amount of antithrombic cytokines |
|d|They develop a hypersensitivity to homocystine and lipids
|
____ 158 What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the
myocardium associated with hypertension?
|a|Increased norepinephrine |
|b|Adducin |
|c|Angiotensin II |
|d|Insulin resistance |
____ 159 What pathologic change occurs in kidneys of people with
hypertension that leads to dysfunction of the glomeruli?
|a|Compression of the renal tubules |
|b|Ischemia of the tubule |
|c|Increased pressure from within the tubule |
|d|Obstruction of the renal tubule |
____ 160 Cerebral aneurysms frequently occur in the:
|a|vertebral arteries |
|b|basilar artery |
|c|circle of Willis |
|d|carotid arteries |
____ 161 How does atherosclerosis cause aneurysms?
|a|A reduction in oxygen causes ischemia of the
intima |
|b|An increase in endothelin increases nitric oxide |
|c|Plaque formation erodes the vessel wall |
|d|The vessel is obstructed by plaques and thrombus formation |
____ 162 What are the differences in arterial walls versus vs walls
that promote clot formation?
|a|There is inflammation of the endothelium of the artery and |
| |roughing of the endothelium of the vein |
|b|There is vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery and|
| |hypertrophy of the endothelium of the vein |
|c|There is excessive clot formation of the endothelium of the |
| |artery and lipid accumulation of the endothelium of the vein |
|d|There is roughening of the endothelium of the artery and |
| |inflammation of the endothelium of the vein |
____ 163 What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
|a|Deep vein thrombosis |
|b|Endocarditis |
|c|Valvular disease |
|d|Left heart failure |
____ 164 Which
source of emboli introduces antigens, cells, and protein
aggregates that trigger an immune response within the bloodstream?
|a|Amniotic fluid |
|b|Fat |
|c|Bacteria |
|d|Air |
____ 165 Which is a description of thromboangiitis obliterans Buerger
disease?
|a|An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries |
| |in the feet and sometimes in the hands |
|b|A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of|
| |the fingers, and less commonly the toes |
|c|An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the |
| |upper and lower extremities |
|d|A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins |
| |of the upper extremities |
____ 166 Which is a description of Raynaud phenomenon and disease?
|a|An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries |
| |in the feet and sometimes in the hands
|
|b|A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins |
| |of the upper extremities |
|c|A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of|
| |the fingers, and less commonly the toes |
|d|An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the |
| |upper and lower extremities |
____ 167 What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
|a|An increase in osmotic pressure |
|b|Damage to the valves with veins |
|c|Damage to the venous endothelium |
|d|An increase in hydrostatic pressure |
____ 168 Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the
superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities
and head
|a|inflammation |
|b|occlusion |
|c|distention |
|d|sclerosis |
____ 169
Coronary artery disease can diminish the myocardial blood
supply until deprivation impairs myocardial metabolism enough to cause
_____, a local state in which the cells are temporarily deprived of blood
supply
|a|infarction |
|b|ischemia |
|c|necrosis |
|d|inflammation |
____ 170 Of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease,
which is responsible for a twofold to threefold increase in risk?
|a|Diabetes mellitus |
|b|Hypertension |
|c|Obesity |
|d|High alcohol consumption |
____ 171 Which of the following risk factors is associated with a
twofold increase in the risk for coronary artery disease death and up to a
sixfold risk for stroke?
|a|Diabetes mellitus |
|b|Hypertension |
|c|Obesity
|
|d|High alcohol consumption |
____ 172 How does nicotine increase atherosclerosis?
|a|By the release of histamine |
|b|By decreasing nitric oxide |
|c|By the release of angiotensin II |
|d|By the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine |
____ 173 _____ are manufactured by the liver and primarily contains
cholesterol and protein
|a|Very-low-density lipoproteins VLDL |
|b|Low-density lipoproteins LDL |
|c|High-density lipoproteins HDL |
|d|Triglycerides TG |
____ 174 Which value may be protective for the development of
atherosclerosis?
|a|High values of very-low-density lipoproteins VLDL |
|b|High values of low-density lipoproteins LDL |
|c|High values of high-density lipoproteins HDL |
|d|High values of triglycerides TG |
____ 175 Which lab test is an indirect measure of
atherosclerotic
plaque?
|a|Homocysteine |
|b|Low-density lipoproteins LDL |
|c|Erythrocyte sedimentation rate ESR |
|d|C reactive protein CPR |
____ 176 Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still
return to a viable state for _____ minutes
|a|10 |
|b|15 |
|c|20 |
|d|25 |
____ 177 _____ angina occurs because of vasospasms of one or more
coronary arteries and often during sleep
|a|Unstable |
|b|Stable |
|c|Silent |
|d|Prinzmetal |
____ 178 When scar tissue replaces the myocardium after a myocardial
infarction MI, the forming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to
injury at
about day _____ after MI
|a|5 to 9 |
|b|10 to 14 |
|c|15 to 20 |
|d|20 to 30 |
____ 179 An individual is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin,
creatine kinase CK, and lactic dehydrogenase LDH These elevated levels
indicate:
|a|myocardial ischemia |
|b|hypertension |
|c|myocardial infarction |
|d|coronary artery disease |
____ 180 What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient
when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and
the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the
epicardium?
|a|Prolonged Q-T interval |
|b|ST elevation STEMI |
|c|ST depression STDMI |
|d|Non-ST elevation non-STEMI
|
____ 181 How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart
after a myocardial infarction?
|a|By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance |
|b|By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia |
|c|By reducing the contractility of the myocardium |
|d|By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system |
____ 182 What is the significance of pulsus paradoxus that occurs in a
pericardial effusion?
|a|It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of |
| |the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both |
| |ventricles |
|b|It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the right |
| |atria and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle |
|c|It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the left |
| |atria and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle |
|d|It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of |
| |the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four |
| |heart chambers |
____ 183 A patient complains of sudden onset of
severe chest pain that
radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying
down What is causing these clinical manifestations?
|a|Myocardial infarction |
|b|Pericardial effusion |
|c|Restrictive pericarditis |
|d|Acute pericarditis |
____ 184 Biventricular dilation is the result of _____ cardiomyopathy
|a|hypertrophic |
|b|restrictive |
|c|congestive |
|d|inflammatory |
____ 185 _____ cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation
and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure
|a|Dilated |
|b|Hypertrophic |
|c|Septal |
|d|Dystrophic |
____ 186 The hallmark
of _____ cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate
thickening of the interventricular septum
|a|dystrophic |
|b|hypertrophic |
|c|septal |
|d|dilated |
____ 187 _____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative
disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or
glycogen storage disease
|a|Infiltrative |
|b|Restrictive |
|c|Septal |
|d|Hypertrophic |
____ 188 What are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis?
|a|Jugular vein distension |
|b|Bounding pulses |
|c|Peripheral edema |
|d|Dyspnea on exertion |
____ 189 Aortic and mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis are
all
caused by which of the following?
|a|Congenital malformation |
|b|Cardiac failure |
|c|Rheumatic fever |
|d|Coronary artery disease |
____ 190 Which valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal
dominant inheritance pattern, to be associated with connective tissue
disease that tends to be most prevalent in young women?
|a|Mitral valve prolapse |
|b|Tricuspid stenosis |
|c|Tricuspid valve prolapse |
|d|Aortic insufficiency |
____ 191 Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is
nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center,
making them appear as a ringworm?
|a|Fat emboli |
|b|Rheumatic fever |
|c|Bacterial endocarditis |
|d|Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome |
____ 192 Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:
|a|a virus |
|b|a fungus |
|c|a bacteria |
|d|rickettsiae |
____ 193 For which disorder are the risk factors genitourinary
instrumentation, dental procedure, hemodialysis, and intravenous drug use?
|a|Rheumatic fever |
|b|Infective endocarditis |
|c|Mitral regurgitation |
|d|Aortic regurgitation |
____ 194 What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome AIDS resulting from myocarditis and
infective endocarditis?
|a|Inflammatory cardiomyopathy |
|b|Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
|c|Dilated cardiomyopathy |
|d|Restrictive cardiomyopathy |
____
195 A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated
pulmonary vascular resistance Which of the following heart failures may
result from this condition?
|a|Right heart failure |
|b|Left heart failure |
|c|Low-output failure |
|d|High-output failure |
____ 196 Ventricular remodeling is a result of:
|a|left ventricular hypertrophy |
|b|right ventricular failure |
|c|myocardial ischemia |
|d|contractile dysfunction |
____ 197 In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have
on stroke volume?
|a|Increases preload and decreases afterload |
|b|Increases preload and increases afterload |
|c|Decreases preload and increases afterload |
|d|Decreases preload and decreases afterload |
Matching
Match the description with its corresponding term
|a|Loss of differentiation
|
|b|Cancer cells secrete growth factor for their own growth |
|c|Cells that vary in size and shape |
|d|Unaltered normal allele |
|e|Responsible for maintenance of genomic integrity |
____ 198 Proto-oncogene
____ 199 Pleomorphic
____ 200 Anaplasia
____ 201 Caretaker gene
____ 202 Autocrine stimulation
Match the intracardiac pressures with their description
|a|a wave |
|b|v wave |
|c|c wave |
|d|x descent |
|e|y descent |
____ 203 An early diastole peak caused by filling of the atrium from
peripheral veins
____ 204 Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right
atrium into the right ventricle
____ 205 Generated by the atrial contraction
____ 206 Produced because of descent of the tricuspid valve ring and by
ejection of blood from both ventricles
____ 207
May represent bulging of the mitral valve into the left atrium
during early systole
Match the description with the corresponding terms
|a|Relationship among blood flow, pressure, and resistance |
|b|Increased heart rate from increased volume |
|c|Relationship of wall tension intraventricular pressure, |
| |internal radius, and wall thickness |
|d|Cycles of attachment, movement, and dissociation of thin |
| |filaments during the attachments of actin to myosin |
|e|Length-tension relationship of cardiac muscle |
____ 208 Poiseuilles formula
____ 209 Cross-bridge theory
____ 210 Frank-Starling law
____ 211 Laplaces law
____ 212 Bainbridge reflex
Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms
|a|Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle |
|b|Impairs flow from the left ventricle |
|c|Backflow into left atrium |
|d|Backflow into right atrium |
|e|Backflow into left ventricle |
____ 213 Aortic stenosis
____ 214 Aortic
regurgitation
____ 215 Mitral stenosis
____ 216 Tricuspid regurgitation
____ 217 Mitral regurgitation
Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms
|a|Restrictive cardiomyopathy |
|b|Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
|c|Dilated cardiomyopathy |
____ 218 Usually caused by infiltrative disease, such as amyloidosis
____ 219 Usually caused by ischemic or valvular heart disease
____ 220 Results in muscular subaortic stenosis
____ 221 May be an autosomal dominant disorder
____ 222 Seen in alcoholics
Patho Exam 2 Review
Answer Section
TRUE/FALSE
1 ANS: T REF: p 337
2 ANS: T REF: p 342
3 ANS: F REF: p 344
4 ANS: T REF: p 341
5 ANS: F REF: p 361; p 362
6 ANS: T REF: p 333
7 ANS: T REF: p 670
8 ANS: T REF: p 671
9 ANS: T REF: p 665
10 ANS: F REF: p 674
11 ANS: T REF: p 665
12 ANS: T REF: p 686
13 ANS: F REF: p 689
14 ANS: T REF: p 693
15 ANS: T
REF: p 697
16 ANS: T REF: p 699
17 ANS: F REF: p 703; p 708
18 ANS: T REF: p 685
19 ANS: F REF: p 714
20 ANS: F REF: p 1036
21 ANS: F REF: p 1061
22 ANS: T REF: p 1067
23 ANS: F REF: p 1041
24 ANS: T REF: p 1062
25 ANS: T REF: p 1082
26 ANS: F REF: p 1082
27 ANS: T REF: p 1097
28 ANS: F REF: p 1098
29 ANS: T REF: p 1089
30 ANS: F REF: p 1099
31 ANS: T REF: p 1101
32 ANS: T REF: p 1133
33 ANS: T REF: p 1116
34 ANS: T REF: p 1124
35 ANS: T REF: p 1132
36 ANS: T REF: p 1123
37 ANS: F REF: p 1125
38 ANS: T REF: p 1129
MULTIPLE CHOICE
39 ANS: A REF: p 336
40 ANS: B REF: p 336
41 ANS: C REF: p 336
42 ANS: D REF: p 337
43 ANS: A REF: p 338; p 339
44 ANS: D REF: p 339
45 ANS: B REF: p 340
46 ANS: C REF: p 341
47 ANS: C REF: p 341
48 ANS:
A REF: p 343
49 ANS: B REF: p 343
50 ANS: D REF: p 344
51 ANS: B REF: p 344
52 ANS: A REF: p 344
53 ANS: C
A is description of chromosome translocation; C, of gene amplification
REF: p 343
54 ANS: D REF: p 334
55 ANS: B REF: p 336
56 ANS: B REF: p 343
57 ANS: B REF: p 352
58 ANS: C REF: p 357
59 ANS: C REF: p 349
60 ANS: A REF: p 348
61 ANS: C REF: p 361
62 ANS: B REF: p 347
63 ANS: C REF: p 347
64 ANS: C REF: p 347
65 ANS: C REF: p 656
66 ANS: D REF: p 656
67 ANS: D REF: p 657
68 ANS: B REF: p 657
69 ANS: D REF: p 660
70 ANS: A REF: p 661
71 ANS: C REF: p 660
72 ANS: D REF: p 665
73 ANS: B REF: p 664
74 ANS: D REF: p 664
75 ANS: C REF: p 664
76 ANS: B REF: p 668
77 ANS: A REF: p 670
78 ANS: C REF: p 667; p 668
79 ANS: A REF: p 668
80 ANS: C
REF: p 673
81 ANS: A REF: p 672
82 ANS: A REF: p 674
83 ANS: C REF: p 674
84 ANS: A REF: p 677
85 ANS: C REF: p 660
86 ANS: C REF: p 685; p 686
87 ANS: C REF: p 686
88 ANS: A REF: p 687
89 ANS: C REF: p 686
90 ANS: B REF: p 686
91 ANS: A REF: p 686
92 ANS: A REF: p 687
93 ANS: A REF: p 689
94 ANS: A REF: p 688
95 ANS: B REF: p 689
96 ANS: B REF: p 690
97 ANS: C REF: p 691
98 ANS: C REF: p 693
99 ANS: C REF: p 694
100 ANS: A REF: p 693
101 ANS: B REF: p 693
102 ANS: D REF: p 693
103 ANS: D REF: p 695
104 ANS: D REF: p 697
105 ANS: B REF: p 698
106 ANS: C REF: p 698
107 ANS: A REF: p 699
108 ANS: C REF: p 699
109 ANS: B REF: p 712; p 713
110 ANS: A REF: p 707
111 ANS: C REF: p 711
112 ANS: A REF: p 713
113 ANS: B REF: p 713
114 ANS: D
REF: p 713; p 714
115 ANS: A REF: p 714
116 ANS: C REF: p 716; p 717
117 ANS: A REF: p 718
118 ANS: C REF: p 716
119 ANS: D REF: p 718
120 ANS: A REF: p 716
121 ANS: D REF: p 716
122 ANS: D REF: p 721; p 722
123 ANS: B REF: p 1031
124 ANS: B REF: p 1032
125 ANS: C REF: p 1033
126 ANS: A REF: p 1035
127 ANS: D REF: p 1035
128 ANS: D REF: p 1034
129 ANS: A REF: p 1034
130 ANS: B REF: p 1036
131 ANS: A REF: p 1036
132 ANS: C REF: p 1038
133 ANS: B REF: p 1040
134 ANS: D REF: p 1039
135 ANS: A REF: p 1040; p 1041
136 ANS: E REF: p 1040
137 ANS: B REF: p 1041
138 ANS: B REF: p 1041
139 ANS: B REF: p 1042
140 ANS: C REF: p 1041; p 1042
141 ANS: A REF: p 1047
142 ANS: C REF: p 1048
143 ANS: A REF: p 1049
144 ANS: C REF: p 1049
145 ANS: B REF: p 1058
146 ANS: C REF: p 1067
147 ANS: B REF: p 1073
148 ANS: A REF: p 1074
149 ANS: D REF: p 1054; p 1055
150 ANS: C REF: p 1065
151 ANS: D REF: p 1066
152 ANS: B REF: p 1065; p 1066
153 ANS: C REF: p 1082
154 ANS: A REF: p 1082
155 ANS: C REF: p 1082; p 1084
156 ANS: A REF: p 1084
157 ANS: B REF: p 1082
158 ANS: C REF: p 1088
159 ANS: B REF: p 1088
160 ANS: C REF: p 1095
161 ANS: C REF: p 1094
162 ANS: D REF: p 1096
163 ANS: A REF: p 1096
164 ANS: A REF: p 1097
165 ANS: A REF: p 1098
166 ANS: C REF: p 1098
167 ANS: B REF: p 1099
168 ANS: B REF: p 1100
169 ANS: B REF: p 1100
170 ANS: B REF: p 1102
171 ANS: A REF: p 1103
172 ANS: D REF: p 1102
173 ANS: B REF: p 1102
174 ANS: C REF: p 1102
175 ANS: D REF: p 1104
176 ANS: C REF: p 1105
177 ANS: D REF: p 1106
178 ANS: B REF: p 1113
179 ANS: C REF:
p 1113
180 ANS: B REF: p 1111
181 ANS: A REF: p 1088
182 ANS: D REF: p 1116
183 ANS: D REF: p 1115
184 ANS: C REF: p 1118
185 ANS: A REF: p 1118
186 ANS: B REF: P 1119
187 ANS: B REF: p 1120
188 ANS: D REF: p 1121
189 ANS: C REF: p 1122
190 ANS: A REF: p 1123
191 ANS: B REF: p 1125
192 ANS: C REF: p 1126
193 ANS: B REF: p 1127
194 ANS: C REF: p 1128
195 ANS: A REF: p 1133
196 ANS: C REF: p 1129
197 ANS: B REF: p 1129
MATCHING
198 ANS: D REF: p 343
199 ANS: C REF: p 337
200 ANS: A REF: p 337
201 ANS: E REF: p 346
202 ANS: B REF: p 341
203 ANS: B REF: p 1034
204 ANS: E REF: p 1034
205 ANS: A REF: p 1034
206 ANS: D REF: p 1034
207 ANS: C REF: p 1034
208 ANS: A REF: p 1057
209 ANS: D REF: p 1046
210 ANS: E REF: p 1047
211 ANS: C REF: p 1047
212 ANS: B REF: p
1049
213 ANS: B REF: p 1121
214 ANS: E REF: p 1122
215 ANS: A REF: p 1122
216 ANS: D REF: p 1122
217 ANS: C REF: p 1122
218 ANS: A REF: p 1120
219 ANS: C REF: p 1118
220 ANS: B REF: p 1119
221 ANS: B REF: p 1119
222 ANS: C REF: p 1118
Source:hsc.usf.edu
